MDCAT MCQs with Answers

MDCAT MCQs with Answers: Year-Wise Practice Guide for Pakistan Students

MDCAT MCQs with Answers is one of the most searched topics by medical entry test students in Pakistan. Every student wants past papers, solved questions, repeated MCQs, and explanations. But there is one important point: exact old exam papers are usually copyrighted by test authorities or publishers. This post gives a safe, powerful alternative: original MDCAT-style MCQs based on past-paper trends, syllabus patterns, and repeated high-yield concepts.

PreachBio Mission: This guide is made for students who cannot afford expensive academies. It gives year-wise trend analysis, subject-wise high-yield topics, and 100 original MDCAT-style MCQs with answers and explanations.

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Important: These are original practice MCQs based on MDCAT syllabus trends and high-yield concepts. They are not copied from official papers. Always verify the latest syllabus and test structure from PMDC and relevant admitting universities.

Table of Contents

1. 2007–2026 Year-Wise MDCAT Trend Table
2. Subject-Wise High-Yield Topics
3. How to Use These MCQs
4. 100 Original MDCAT-Style MCQs with Answers
5. PreachBio Internal MDCAT Links
6. FAQs

2007–2026 Year-Wise MDCAT Trend Table

This table is a trend guide. It does not reproduce copyrighted past-paper questions. It summarizes the type of concepts students should practice year by year.

Year	Observed / Expected Trend	High-Yield Focus Areas
2007	Foundational recall	Biology definitions, basic organic chemistry, mechanics formulas, English grammar
2008	Textbook-line focus	Cell biology, enzymes, chemical bonding, kinematics, vocabulary
2009	Concept + recall mix	Human physiology, periodicity, waves, sentence correction
2010	More analytical MCQs	Genetics basics, stoichiometry, current electricity, comprehension
2011	Textbook diagrams	Nephron, heart, plant transport, optics, organic basics
2012	Application trend rises	Enzymes, bioenergetics, equilibrium, electrostatics, logical patterns
2013	High-yield Biology dominance	Coordination, reproduction, organic functional groups, thermal physics
2014	Mixed difficulty	Biodiversity, genetics crosses, acids/bases, circular motion, grammar
2015	Formula + concept blend	Respiration, photosynthesis, electrochemistry, waves, English usage
2016	Repeated concepts visible	Cell organelles, enzymes, hydrocarbons, force & motion, vocabulary
2017	Reasoning-based science	Hormones, inheritance, carbonyl compounds, electricity, logical reasoning
2018	Time-management heavy	Human physiology, organic conversions, optics, measurements, grammar traps
2019	Conceptual Biology focus	Nervous system, immunity, equilibrium, nuclear physics, analogy
2020	Standardized pattern transition	Molecular biology, reproduction, stoichiometry, mechanics, English rules
2021	Syllabus-aligned MCQs	Biological molecules, evolution, thermodynamics, current electricity, reasoning
2022	Analytical + moderate level	Genetics, enzymes, organic chemistry, electrostatics, vocabulary
2023	Speed and accuracy focus	Physiology, photosynthesis, chemistry calculations, optics, logic
2024	Balanced subject testing	Cell biology, coordination, acids/bases, mechanics, English grammar
2025	Official weightage-focused	Biology-heavy pattern, Chemistry moderate, Physics formulas, English + Logical Reasoning
2026	Expected trend	Syllabus-based, Biology high-yield, formula-based Physics, organic conversions, reasoning practice

Subject-Wise High-Yield MDCAT Topics

Subject	High-Yield Topics	Best Practice Method
Biology	Cell biology, biological molecules, enzymes, bioenergetics, human physiology, coordination, reproduction, genetics, evolution, ecology	Textbook lines, diagrams, definitions, differences, sequences, MCQs
Chemistry	Stoichiometry, bonding, periodicity, equilibrium, acids/bases, electrochemistry, organic functional groups, hydrocarbons, carbonyls, carboxylic acids	Formulas, reaction maps, reagent logic, calculation practice
Physics	Measurements, vectors, kinematics, dynamics, work-energy, waves, thermal physics, electrostatics, current electricity, optics, modern physics	Formula + unit + condition + timed numericals
English	Grammar, articles, prepositions, tenses, subject-verb agreement, vocabulary, sentence correction	Daily short drills and error notebook
Logical Reasoning	Series, odd one out, analogy, coding, statement-conclusion, basic analytical reasoning	10–20 questions daily with explanation review

How to Use These MDCAT MCQs with Answers

1. Solve one subject section at a time.
2. Attempt the MCQ before looking at the answer.
3. Read the explanation even if your answer is correct.
4. Write every wrong MCQ in a mistake notebook.
5. Revise wrong MCQs after 24 hours, 3 days, and 7 days.
6. Use PreachBio subject guides for weak concepts.

Best method: MCQ → Answer → Explanation → Mistake Notebook → Revision → Retest.

100 Original MDCAT-Style MCQs with Answers and Explanations

Biology MDCAT MCQs with Answers and Explanations

1. Which cell organelle is mainly responsible for ATP production in aerobic respiration?

A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondrion
C. Golgi body
D. Lysosome

Answer: B. Mitochondrion

Explanation: Mitochondria are the main site of aerobic respiration and ATP production.

2. The basic structural and functional unit of kidney is:

A. Neuron
B. Nephron
C. Alveolus
D. Sarcomere

Answer: B. Nephron

Explanation: The nephron performs filtration, reabsorption, secretion, and urine formation.

3. Oxygen released during photosynthesis comes from:

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Glucose
C. Water
D. Chlorophyll

Answer: C. Water

Explanation: Photolysis of water during light reactions releases oxygen.

4. Which molecule carries genetic information?

A. ATP
B. DNA
C. Starch
D. Cellulose

Answer: B. DNA

Explanation: DNA stores hereditary information in living organisms.

5. Enzymes are mostly composed of:

A. Lipids
B. Proteins
C. Minerals
D. Water

Answer: B. Proteins

Explanation: Most enzymes are proteins, though some RNA molecules can be catalytic.

6. The lock-and-key model explains:

A. Osmosis
B. Enzyme specificity
C. DNA replication
D. Meiosis

Answer: B. Enzyme specificity

Explanation: The model explains how a specific substrate fits the active site of an enzyme.

7. Crossing over occurs during:

A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase II

Answer: A. Prophase I

Explanation: Crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis.

8. The site of gaseous exchange in human lungs is:

A. Trachea
B. Bronchi
C. Alveoli
D. Larynx

Answer: C. Alveoli

Explanation: Alveoli provide thin walls and large surface area for gas exchange.

9. Insulin is secreted by:

A. Alpha cells
B. Beta cells
C. Thyroid follicles
D. Adrenal cortex

Answer: B. Beta cells

Explanation: Beta cells of pancreatic islets secrete insulin.

10. The pigment mainly responsible for photosynthesis is:

A. Melanin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Chlorophyll
D. Keratin

Answer: C. Chlorophyll

Explanation: Chlorophyll absorbs light energy for photosynthesis.

11. Which blood component helps in clotting?

A. RBCs
B. Platelets
C. Plasma water
D. Albumin

Answer: B. Platelets

Explanation: Platelets play a key role in blood clotting.

12. DNA replication is called semi-conservative because:

A. Both strands are new
B. Both strands are old
C. Each daughter DNA has one old and one new strand
D. RNA is converted into DNA

Answer: C. Each daughter DNA has one old and one new strand

Explanation: Each new DNA molecule preserves one parental strand.

13. Which process forms mRNA from DNA?

A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. Replication
D. Fermentation

Answer: B. Transcription

Explanation: Transcription synthesizes RNA using DNA as template.

14. Which process forms protein using mRNA?

A. Translation
B. Transcription
C. Replication
D. Osmosis

Answer: A. Translation

Explanation: Translation occurs at ribosomes to form polypeptides.

15. Xylem mainly transports:

A. Sugars
B. Water and minerals
C. Hormones only
D. Proteins

Answer: B. Water and minerals

Explanation: Xylem conducts water and dissolved minerals from roots upward.

16. Phloem mainly transports:

A. Food materials
B. Only water
C. Only oxygen
D. Only minerals

Answer: A. Food materials

Explanation: Phloem transports organic food, mainly sugars.

17. The functional unit of nervous system is:

A. Nephron
B. Neuron
C. Osteocyte
D. Alveolus

Answer: B. Neuron

Explanation: Neurons transmit nerve impulses.

18. Which hormone increases blood glucose level?

A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Oxytocin
D. Prolactin

Answer: B. Glucagon

Explanation: Glucagon promotes glycogen breakdown and raises blood glucose.

19. Mendel’s law of segregation refers to:

A. Separation of alleles
B. Joining of chromosomes
C. Mutation of genes
D. Protein synthesis

Answer: A. Separation of alleles

Explanation: Alleles separate during gamete formation.

20. Adenine pairs with which base in DNA?

A. Uracil
B. Guanine
C. Thymine
D. Cytosine

Answer: C. Thymine

Explanation: Adenine pairs with thymine in DNA.

21. The basic unit of protein is:

A. Glucose
B. Amino acid
C. Fatty acid
D. Nucleotide

Answer: B. Amino acid

Explanation: Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

22. The basic unit of nucleic acid is:

A. Amino acid
B. Nucleotide
C. Glycerol
D. Glucose

Answer: B. Nucleotide

Explanation: DNA and RNA are made of nucleotides.

23. Stomata are mainly involved in:

A. Food storage
B. Gas exchange and transpiration
C. Protein synthesis
D. Fertilization

Answer: B. Gas exchange and transpiration

Explanation: Stomata regulate gas exchange and water loss.

24. Which structure prevents backflow of blood in heart?

A. Septum
B. Valves
C. Aorta
D. Capillaries

Answer: B. Valves

Explanation: Valves ensure one-way flow of blood.

25. Meiosis produces:

A. Diploid body cells
B. Haploid gametes
C. Only bacterial spores
D. Identical clones only

Answer: B. Haploid gametes

Explanation: Meiosis reduces chromosome number and forms gametes.

26. Which phase of mitosis aligns chromosomes at equator?

A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

Answer: B. Metaphase

Explanation: Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate during metaphase.

27. Which organelle is involved in protein synthesis?

A. Ribosome
B. Lysosome
C. Vacuole
D. Centriole

Answer: A. Ribosome

Explanation: Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis.

28. Natural selection mainly acts on:

A. Phenotypes
B. Only hidden alleles
C. Only ribosomes
D. Only water molecules

Answer: A. Phenotypes

Explanation: Selection acts on expressed traits affecting survival and reproduction.

29. Which vitamin deficiency is linked with rickets?

A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K

Answer: C. Vitamin D

Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency can cause rickets due to poor calcium metabolism.

30. Which process moves water through a selectively permeable membrane?

A. Diffusion of solute
B. Osmosis
C. Active transport only
D. Endocytosis

Answer: B. Osmosis

Explanation: Osmosis is movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.

Chemistry MDCAT MCQs with Answers and Explanations

31. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:

A. 0
B. 7
C. 10
D. 14

Answer: B. 7

Explanation: Neutral water has pH 7 at 25°C.

32. Oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is:

A. +1
B. 0
C. -2
D. +2

Answer: C. -2

Explanation: Oxygen usually has oxidation number −2, except in peroxides and OF2.

33. Which bond is formed by sharing of electrons?

A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Metallic bond
D. Hydrogen bond only

Answer: B. Covalent bond

Explanation: Covalent bonds form by sharing electron pairs.

34. Avogadro’s number is approximately:

A. 6.02 × 10²³
B. 3.0 × 10⁸
C. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹
D. 9.8

Answer: A. 6.02 × 10²³

Explanation: One mole contains 6.02 × 10²³ particles.

35. Which compound has −OH functional group?

A. Alcohol
B. Aldehyde
C. Ketone
D. Carboxylic acid only

Answer: A. Alcohol

Explanation: Alcohols contain hydroxyl group attached to an alkyl group.

36. Alkenes mainly undergo:

A. Addition reactions
B. Only substitution
C. Neutralization only
D. Hydrolysis only

Answer: A. Addition reactions

Explanation: The C=C double bond allows addition reactions.

37. Benzene usually undergoes:

A. Electrophilic substitution
B. Simple addition only
C. Combustion only
D. Polymerization only

Answer: A. Electrophilic substitution

Explanation: Substitution preserves aromatic stability.

38. Primary alcohol on controlled oxidation gives:

A. Ketone
B. Aldehyde
C. Alkane
D. Ester directly

Answer: B. Aldehyde

Explanation: Primary alcohol first oxidizes to aldehyde.

39. Secondary alcohol on oxidation gives:

A. Aldehyde
B. Ketone
C. Alkane
D. Carboxylic acid directly

Answer: B. Ketone

Explanation: Secondary alcohols oxidize to ketones.

40. Carboxylic acid reacts with alcohol to form:

A. Ester
B. Alkene
C. Alkyne
D. Haloalkane only

Answer: A. Ester

Explanation: Esterification forms ester and water.

41. Which gas is evolved when acid reacts with carbonate?

A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrogen

Answer: C. Carbon dioxide

Explanation: Acids react with carbonates to release CO2.

42. The conjugate base of HCl is:

A. H2Cl+
B. Cl−
C. OH−
D. H+

Answer: B. Cl−

Explanation: After losing H+, HCl becomes Cl−.

43. In periodic table, atomic radius generally decreases across a period because:

A. Nuclear charge increases
B. Shells decrease
C. Mass decreases
D. Electrons disappear

Answer: A. Nuclear charge increases

Explanation: Effective nuclear charge increases across a period.

44. Which is an intensive property?

A. Mass
B. Volume
C. Density
D. Total energy

Answer: C. Density

Explanation: Density does not depend on amount of substance.

45. Rate of reaction generally increases with temperature because:

A. Particles slow down
B. Effective collisions increase
C. Activation energy becomes zero
D. Products disappear

Answer: B. Effective collisions increase

Explanation: Higher temperature increases kinetic energy and effective collisions.

46. A catalyst changes:

A. Equilibrium constant
B. Activation energy
C. Molar mass
D. Atomic number

Answer: B. Activation energy

Explanation: A catalyst provides an alternate pathway with lower activation energy.

47. Which is a strong acid?

A. CH3COOH
B. HCl
C. H2CO3
D. NH4+

Answer: B. HCl

Explanation: HCl ionizes strongly in aqueous solution.

48. The shape of methane is:

A. Linear
B. Trigonal planar
C. Tetrahedral
D. Square planar

Answer: C. Tetrahedral

Explanation: Methane has sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral geometry.

49. Hybridization of carbon in ethene is:

A. sp
B. sp2
C. sp3
D. dsp2

Answer: B. sp2

Explanation: Each carbon in ethene is sp2 hybridized.

50. Bromine water is decolorized by:

A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes
C. Noble gases
D. Saturated hydrocarbons only

Answer: B. Alkenes

Explanation: Alkenes add bromine across the double bond.

51. The functional group of aldehyde is:

A. −CHO
B. −COOH
C. −OH
D. −X

Answer: A. −CHO

Explanation: Aldehydes contain −CHO group.

52. The functional group of ketone is:

A. Terminal −CHO
B. Carbonyl between two carbon groups
C. −OH only
D. −COOH only

Answer: B. Carbonyl between two carbon groups

Explanation: Ketones have R−CO−R structure.

53. Which is a colligative property?

A. Color
B. Boiling point elevation
C. Smell
D. Density only

Answer: B. Boiling point elevation

Explanation: Colligative properties depend on number of solute particles.

54. Electrolysis involves:

A. Chemical change by electric current
B. Only freezing
C. Only evaporation
D. No electron transfer

Answer: A. Chemical change by electric current

Explanation: Electrolysis uses electric current to drive chemical reactions.

55. The SI unit of pressure used in gases is:

A. Joule
B. Pascal
C. Ampere
D. Ohm

Answer: B. Pascal

Explanation: Pressure is measured in pascals in SI.

Physics MDCAT MCQs with Answers and Explanations

56. A body starts from rest with acceleration 2 m/s². Velocity after 5 s is:

A. 5 m/s
B. 7 m/s
C. 10 m/s
D. 20 m/s

Answer: C. 10 m/s

Explanation: v = u + at = 0 + 2×5 = 10 m/s.

57. The SI unit of force is:

A. Joule
B. Newton
C. Watt
D. Pascal

Answer: B. Newton

Explanation: Force is measured in newtons.

58. Work done is zero when angle between force and displacement is:

A. 0°
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 90°

Answer: D. 90°

Explanation: W = Fs cosθ; at 90°, cosθ = 0.

59. Kinetic energy of a 2 kg body moving at 4 m/s is:

A. 8 J
B. 12 J
C. 16 J
D. 32 J

Answer: C. 16 J

Explanation: KE = 1/2 mv² = 1/2×2×16 = 16 J.

60. If frequency doubles and wave speed remains constant, wavelength becomes:

A. Double
B. Half
C. Four times
D. Unchanged

Answer: B. Half

Explanation: v = fλ; if v is constant, λ is inversely proportional to f.

61. Ohm’s law is:

A. P = VI
B. V = IR
C. Q = mcΔT
D. F = ma

Answer: B. V = IR

Explanation: Ohm’s law relates voltage, current, and resistance.

62. Power consumed by 10 Ω resistor carrying 2 A current is:

A. 10 W
B. 20 W
C. 40 W
D. 80 W

Answer: C. 40 W

Explanation: P = I²R = 4×10 = 40 W.

63. Refractive index is:

A. n = v/c
B. n = c/v
C. n = fλ
D. n = mgh

Answer: B. n = c/v

Explanation: n equals speed of light in vacuum divided by speed in medium.

64. A lens has focal length 0.5 m. Its power is:

A. 0.5 D
B. 1 D
C. 2 D
D. 5 D

Answer: C. 2 D

Explanation: P = 1/f = 1/0.5 = 2 D.

65. Photon energy is given by:

A. E = hf
B. E = mgh
C. E = 1/2mv²
D. E = IR

Answer: A. E = hf

Explanation: Photon energy is proportional to frequency.

66. If time period is 0.2 s, frequency is:

A. 0.2 Hz
B. 2 Hz
C. 5 Hz
D. 10 Hz

Answer: C. 5 Hz

Explanation: f = 1/T = 1/0.2 = 5 Hz.

67. Unit of pressure is:

A. N
B. Pa
C. J
D. W

Answer: B. Pa

Explanation: Pressure is force per unit area and measured in pascal.

68. Momentum is:

A. p = mv
B. p = ma
C. p = mgh
D. p = IR

Answer: A. p = mv

Explanation: Momentum equals mass times velocity.

69. Electric current is:

A. I = V/R only
B. I = Q/t
C. I = Pt
D. I = F/A

Answer: B. I = Q/t

Explanation: Current is rate of flow of charge.

70. Energy stored in capacitor is:

A. 1/2 CV²
B. CV only
C. IR²
D. mg

Answer: A. 1/2 CV²

Explanation: Capacitor energy can be U = 1/2CV².

71. A 5 kg body has weight approximately:

A. 5 N
B. 9.8 N
C. 49 N
D. 98 N

Answer: C. 49 N

Explanation: W = mg = 5×9.8 = 49 N.

72. Centripetal acceleration is:

A. v/r
B. vr
C. v²/r
D. r/v²

Answer: C. v²/r

Explanation: a_c = v²/r for circular motion.

73. Unit of capacitance is:

A. Coulomb
B. Farad
C. Tesla
D. Weber

Answer: B. Farad

Explanation: Capacitance is measured in farads.

74. First law of thermodynamics is:

A. ΔU = Q − W
B. F = ma
C. V = IR
D. E = hf

Answer: A. ΔU = Q − W

Explanation: Change in internal energy equals heat supplied minus work done.

75. de Broglie wavelength is:

A. λ = h/p
B. λ = p/h
C. λ = hf
D. λ = mc²

Answer: A. λ = h/p

Explanation: Matter wavelength is inversely proportional to momentum.

76. The acceleration due to gravity is approximately:

A. 3 m/s²
B. 9.8 m/s²
C. 100 m/s²
D. 0.98 m/s²

Answer: B. 9.8 m/s²

Explanation: Near Earth’s surface g is about 9.8 m/s².

77. A transformer works on:

A. Electromagnetic induction
B. Photoelectric effect
C. Refraction
D. Thermal expansion

Answer: A. Electromagnetic induction

Explanation: Transformer operation depends on electromagnetic induction.

78. Snell’s law is:

A. n1 sinθ1 = n2 sinθ2
B. V = IR
C. F = ma
D. E = hf

Answer: A. n1 sinθ1 = n2 sinθ2

Explanation: Snell’s law relates angles and refractive indices.

79. Heat required to raise temperature is:

A. Q = mcΔT
B. Q = mL
C. F = ma
D. E = hf

Answer: A. Q = mcΔT

Explanation: Sensible heat is Q = mcΔT.

80. Coulomb’s law involves force between:

A. Masses
B. Charges
C. Waves
D. Lenses

Answer: B. Charges

Explanation: Coulomb’s law describes electrostatic force between charges.

English MDCAT MCQs with Answers and Explanations

81. Choose the correct sentence:

A. He do his work.
B. He does his work.
C. He doing his work.
D. He done his work.

Answer: B. He does his work.

Explanation: Singular subject 'he' takes 'does'.

82. Choose the correct preposition: He is interested ___ Biology.

A. on
B. at
C. in
D. for

Answer: C. in

Explanation: The correct phrase is 'interested in'.

83. Synonym of 'rapid' is:

A. Slow
B. Fast
C. Weak
D. Late

Answer: B. Fast

Explanation: Rapid means fast.

84. Antonym of 'scarce' is:

A. Rare
B. Limited
C. Plentiful
D. Deficient

Answer: C. Plentiful

Explanation: Scarce means lacking; opposite is plentiful.

85. Choose correct article: She is ___ honest student.

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. no article

Answer: B. an

Explanation: 'Honest' begins with vowel sound, so 'an' is used.

86. Correct tense: By next year, he ___ his course.

A. completed
B. will complete
C. will have completed
D. complete

Answer: C. will have completed

Explanation: Future perfect is used for completion before a future time.

87. Choose the correct word: The medicine had a strong ___ on the patient.

A. affect
B. effect
C. effort
D. afford

Answer: B. effect

Explanation: Effect is a noun meaning result.

88. Choose correct sentence:

A. Neither of the answers are correct.
B. Neither of the answers is correct.
C. Neither answers correct.
D. Neither are correct answer.

Answer: B. Neither of the answers is correct.

Explanation: Neither is singular in standard usage.

89. Meaning of 'inevitable' is:

A. Avoidable
B. Certain to happen
C. Unclear
D. Temporary

Answer: B. Certain to happen

Explanation: Inevitable means unavoidable/certain.

90. Choose correct phrase:

A. different than
B. different to
C. different from
D. different at

Answer: C. different from

Explanation: Standard phrase is 'different from'.

Logical Reasoning MDCAT MCQs with Answers and Explanations

91. Find the next number: 2, 4, 8, 16, ___

A. 18
B. 24
C. 32
D. 64

Answer: C. 32

Explanation: Each number is doubled.

92. Find the odd one out:

A. Heart
B. Lung
C. Kidney
D. Chloroplast

Answer: D. Chloroplast

Explanation: Chloroplast is a plant cell organelle, others are human organs.

93. If all doctors study biology and Ali is a doctor, then:

A. Ali never studied biology
B. Ali studied biology
C. Ali is a plant
D. No conclusion

Answer: B. Ali studied biology

Explanation: The conclusion follows from the given statements.

94. Find next letter: A, C, E, G, ___

A. H
B. I
C. J
D. K

Answer: B. I

Explanation: Letters skip one: A C E G I.

95. If CAT is coded as DBU, then DOG is coded as:

A. EPH
B. CNE
C. EOG
D. DPH

Answer: A. EPH

Explanation: Each letter shifts one forward: D→E, O→P, G→H.

96. Which comes next: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, ___

A. 36
B. 38
C. 40
D. 42

Answer: B. 38

Explanation: Differences are 3,5,7,9, so next difference is 11; 27+11=38.

97. Statement: Some students are doctors. All doctors are educated. Conclusion:

A. Some students are educated
B. All students are doctors
C. No doctors are educated
D. All educated are students

Answer: A. Some students are educated

Explanation: If some students are doctors and all doctors educated, some students are educated.

98. Find analogy: Eye : Seeing :: Ear : ___

A. Smelling
B. Hearing
C. Touching
D. Breathing

Answer: B. Hearing

Explanation: Ear is used for hearing.

99. Find odd pair:

A. Pen:Write
B. Knife:Cut
C. Book:Read
D. Chair:Cook

Answer: D. Chair:Cook

Explanation: Chair is not used for cooking.

100. If today is Monday, what day will it be after 10 days?

A. Wednesday
B. Thursday
C. Friday
D. Saturday

Answer: B. Thursday

Explanation: 10 mod 7 = 3; Monday + 3 = Thursday.

PreachBio Internal MDCAT Links

Use these PreachBio resources to continue preparation:

• PreachBio MDCAT Main Page
• MDCAT Past Papers with Most Repeated MCQs
• MDCAT Biology 2025 Full Mock Test – 200 MCQs
• MDCAT Biology Unit 02: Biological Molecules Quiz
• MDCAT Biology Unit 1: Acellular Life Quiz
• MDCAT Biology Complete Guide
• MDCAT Physics Formula Sheet
• MDCAT Chemistry Organic Reactions

FAQs About MDCAT MCQs with Answers

Are these MCQs copied from original past papers?

No. These are original MDCAT-style practice MCQs based on syllabus trends and high-yield concepts. They are not copied from official exam papers.

Can I prepare MDCAT from these MCQs only?

No. MCQs are important, but you should also study textbooks, official syllabus, formula sheets, reaction maps, diagrams, and explanations.

How many MDCAT MCQs should I solve daily?

In early preparation, solve 80–120 MCQs daily. Near the exam, solve full-length timed tests and review mistakes carefully.

Which subject has the most importance in MDCAT?

Biology usually carries high importance, but Chemistry, Physics, English, and Logical Reasoning also affect final score and should not be ignored.

What is the best way to revise wrong MCQs?

Write the topic, your wrong option, correct answer, and explanation in a mistake notebook. Revise it after 24 hours, 3 days, and 7 days.

References and Official Sources

• PMDC Official Syllabus Page
• University of Health Sciences Lahore Official Website
• NUMS Official Website