MDCAT Chemistry 2014: Comprehensive Question Bank with Explanations for Key Topics
Q.45 The order of acid strength is:
Acid Ka Value
-
CH₃COOH = 1.85 x 10⁻⁵
-
CCl₃COOH = 2.3 x 10⁻²
-
CHCl₂COOH = 5.0 x 10⁻³
-
CH₂ClCOOH = 1.3 x 10⁻³
A) CCl₃COOH > CHCl₂COOH > CH₂ClCOOH > CH₃COOH
B) CH₃COOH > CHCl₂COOH > CCl₃COOH > CH₂ClCOOH
C) CHCl₂COOH > CH₃COOH > CCl₃COOH > CH₂ClCOOH
D) CCl₃COOH > CH₃COOH > CHCl₂COOH > CH₂ClCOOH
Answer: A
Explanation: The acid strength increases as the electronegativity of the substituent (like Cl) increases. More electronegative substituents stabilize the negative charge on the conjugate base, making the acid stronger.
Q.46 The structure of organic acid ‘z’ is:
-
Reactions with sodium bicarbonate, sodium hydroxide, and sodium carbonate.
A) HCOOC₂H₅
B) CH₃―CH=CH₂
C) CH₃―CH₂―COOH
D) CH₃―CH₂OH
Answer: C
Explanation: Sodium bicarbonate, hydroxide, and carbonate reactions suggest a carboxylic acid group (-COOH), pointing to the structure being an acid like propanoic acid (CH₃―CH₂―COOH).
Q.47 Powerful reducing agent to reduce carboxylic acids to primary alcohols:
A) H₂SO₄/HgSO₄
B) V₂O₅
C) LiAlH₄
D) K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄
Answer: C
Explanation: LiAlH₄ (Lithium aluminium hydride) is a strong reducing agent that can reduce carboxylic acids to primary alcohols.
Q.48 The structure of the compound is:
A) Gly-Ala (dipeptide)
B) Asp-Gly (dipeptide)
C) Gly-Val (dipeptide)
D) Asp-Val (dipeptide)
Answer: A
Explanation: The structure shown represents a dipeptide of glycine (Gly) and alanine (Ala), based on the amino acid side chains.
Q.49 Which one of the following amino acids is basic in nature?
A) Glycine
B) Alanine
C) Lysine
D) Glutamic acid
Answer: C
Explanation: Lysine is a basic amino acid due to its amino group (-NH₂) on the side chain.
Q.50 Correct formula of glutamic acid:
A) H₂N CH₂ COOH
B) H₂N CH COOH (CH₂)₂ COOH
C) H₂N CH COOH
D) H₂N CH COOH COOH CH₃
Answer: B
Explanation: Glutamic acid has two carboxyl groups (COOH) attached to the side chain, making it the correct structure.
Q.51 Correct zwitter ionic structure of an amino acid:
A) NH₂ R C COOH + H
B) H₂N + CH₂ COO
C) H₃N + C H R COO
D) H₃N + C H R + COO
Answer: C
Explanation: The zwitterionic form of an amino acid has a positive amino group (NH₃⁺) and a negative carboxylate group (COO⁻) at physiological pH.
Q.52 Number of moles of sodium in 0.1 g of sodium:
A) 4.3 × 10⁻³
B) 4.03 × 10⁻¹
C) 4.01 × 10⁻²
D) 4.3 × 10⁻²
Answer: A
Explanation: Moles of sodium = Mass / Molar mass = 0.1 g / 23 g/mol = 4.3 × 10⁻³ mol.
Q.53 The structural formula for alanine is:
A) NH₂ CH C COOH H
B) NH₂ CH₂ C COOH H
C) NH₂ H C COOH H
D) NH₂ H₃C C COOH H
Answer: A
Explanation: Alanine is an amino acid with a methyl group (-CH₃) attached to the central carbon, forming NH₂ CH(CH₃) COOH.
Q.54 The mass of Neon based on given isotopic percentages:
A) 22.18 amu
B) 21.18 amu
C) 20.18 amu
D) 22.20 amu
Answer: A
Explanation: The weighted average atomic mass of Neon, considering the isotopic abundances, is calculated to be 22.18 amu.
Q.55 Which pair has the same electronic configuration as Neon?
A) Na⁺, Cl⁻
B) K⁺, Cl⁻
C) Na⁺, Mg²⁺
D) Na⁺, F⁻
Answer: A
Explanation: Both Na⁺ and Cl⁻ have 10 electrons, the same as Neon.
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Certainly! Here are all the questions in the format you requested:
Q.45 The order of acid strength is:
Acid Ka Value
-
CH₃COOH = 1.85 x 10⁻⁵
-
CCl₃COOH = 2.3 x 10⁻²
-
CHCl₂COOH = 5.0 x 10⁻³
-
CH₂ClCOOH = 1.3 x 10⁻³
A) CCl₃COOH > CHCl₂COOH > CH₂ClCOOH > CH₃COOH
B) CH₃COOH > CHCl₂COOH > CCl₃COOH > CH₂ClCOOH
C) CHCl₂COOH > CH₃COOH > CCl₃COOH > CH₂ClCOOH
D) CCl₃COOH > CH₃COOH > CHCl₂COOH > CH₂ClCOOH
Answer: A
Explanation: The acid strength increases as the electronegativity of the substituent (like Cl) increases. More electronegative substituents stabilize the negative charge on the conjugate base, making the acid stronger.
Q.46 The structure of organic acid ‘z’ is:
-
Reactions with sodium bicarbonate, sodium hydroxide, and sodium carbonate.
A) HCOOC₂H₅
B) CH₃―CH=CH₂
C) CH₃―CH₂―COOH
D) CH₃―CH₂OH
Answer: C
Explanation: Sodium bicarbonate, hydroxide, and carbonate reactions suggest a carboxylic acid group (-COOH), pointing to the structure being an acid like propanoic acid (CH₃―CH₂―COOH).
Q.47 Powerful reducing agent to reduce carboxylic acids to primary alcohols:
A) H₂SO₄/HgSO₄
B) V₂O₅
C) LiAlH₄
D) K₂Cr₂O₇/H₂SO₄
Answer: C
Explanation: LiAlH₄ (Lithium aluminium hydride) is a strong reducing agent that can reduce carboxylic acids to primary alcohols.
Q.48 The structure of the compound is:
A) Gly-Ala (dipeptide)
B) Asp-Gly (dipeptide)
C) Gly-Val (dipeptide)
D) Asp-Val (dipeptide)
Answer: A
Explanation: The structure shown represents a dipeptide of glycine (Gly) and alanine (Ala), based on the amino acid side chains.
Q.49 Which one of the following amino acids is basic in nature?
A) Glycine
B) Alanine
C) Lysine
D) Glutamic acid
Answer: C
Explanation: Lysine is a basic amino acid due to its amino group (-NH₂) on the side chain.
Q.50 Correct formula of glutamic acid:
A) H₂N CH₂ COOH
B) H₂N CH COOH (CH₂)₂ COOH
C) H₂N CH COOH
D) H₂N CH COOH COOH CH₃
Answer: B
Explanation: Glutamic acid has two carboxyl groups (COOH) attached to the side chain, making it the correct structure.
Q.51 Correct zwitter ionic structure of an amino acid:
A) NH₂ R C COOH + H
B) H₂N + CH₂ COO
C) H₃N + C H R COO
D) H₃N + C H R + COO
Answer: C
Explanation: The zwitterionic form of an amino acid has a positive amino group (NH₃⁺) and a negative carboxylate group (COO⁻) at physiological pH.
Q.52 Number of moles of sodium in 0.1 g of sodium:
A) 4.3 × 10⁻³
B) 4.03 × 10⁻¹
C) 4.01 × 10⁻²
D) 4.3 × 10⁻²
Answer: A
Explanation: Moles of sodium = Mass / Molar mass = 0.1 g / 23 g/mol = 4.3 × 10⁻³ mol.
Q.53 The structural formula for alanine is:
A) NH₂ CH C COOH H
B) NH₂ CH₂ C COOH H
C) NH₂ H C COOH H
D) NH₂ H₃C C COOH H
Answer: A
Explanation: Alanine is an amino acid with a methyl group (-CH₃) attached to the central carbon, forming NH₂ CH(CH₃) COOH.
Q.54 The mass of Neon based on given isotopic percentages:
A) 22.18 amu
B) 21.18 amu
C) 20.18 amu
D) 22.20 amu
Answer: A
Explanation: The weighted average atomic mass of Neon, considering the isotopic abundances, is calculated to be 22.18 amu.
Q.55 Which pair has the same electronic configuration as Neon?
A) Na⁺, Cl⁻
B) K⁺, Cl⁻
C) Na⁺, Mg²⁺
D) Na⁺, F⁻
Answer: A
Explanation: Both Na⁺ and Cl⁻ have 10 electrons, the same as Neon.
Q.56 If the volume of a gas collected at a temperature of 600 °C and pressure of 1.05 × 10⁵ Nm⁻² is 60 dm³, what would be the volume of gas at STP (P = 1.01 × 10³ Nm⁻², T = 273 K)?
A) 25 cm³
B) 75 cm³
C) 100 cm³
D) 51 cm³
Answer: D
Explanation: Use the combined gas law to calculate the volume at STP:
Substitute the values and solve for .
Q.57 Which order is correct with respect to the increasing energy of the orbitals?
A) 4s < 4p < 4d < 4f
B) 4p < 4s < 4f < 4d
C) 4s < 4f < 4p < 4d
D) 4f < 4s < 4d < 4p
Answer: A
Explanation: The energy of orbitals increases in the order 4s < 4p < 4d < 4f.
Q.58 Which graph represents Boyle’s law?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: A
Explanation: Boyle's law states that the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume at constant temperature, which is represented by a hyperbolic curve.
Q.59 Which one of the following hydrogen bonds is stronger than others?
A) N δˉ―H δ+ ············ N δˉ―H δ+
B) F δˉ―H δ+ ············ F δˉ―H δ+
C) Oδˉ―H δ+ ············ Oδˉ―H δ+
D) N δˉ―H δ+ ············ Oδˉ―H δ+
Answer: B
Explanation: The F-H bond is the strongest due to the high electronegativity of fluorine, which creates a very strong hydrogen bond.
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Apologies for the confusion earlier! Here's the continuation of the questions in the format you requested, all the way up to Q.103:
Q.60 The half-life of N₂O₅ at 0 °C is 24 minutes. How long will it take for a sample of N₂O₅ to decay to 25% of its original concentration?
A) 24 minutes
B) 72 minutes
C) 120 minutes
D) 48 minutes
Answer: D
Explanation: The decay of a substance to 25% means two half-lives have passed (since 50% -> 25% decay). So, the total time will be 2 × 24 minutes = 48 minutes.
Q.61 When the change in concentration is 6 x 10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³ and the time for that change is 10 seconds, the rate of reaction will be:
A) 6 × 10⁻³ mol dm⁻³ sec⁻¹
B) 6 × 10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³ sec⁻¹
C) 6 × 10⁻² mol dm⁻³ sec⁻¹
D) 6 × 10⁻⁵ mol dm⁻³ sec⁻¹
Answer: A
Explanation: Rate = Change in concentration / Time = (6 × 10⁻⁴ mol dm⁻³) / (10 s) = 6 × 10⁻³ mol dm⁻³ sec⁻¹.
Q.62 Which one of the following will have the smallest radius?
A) Al³⁺
B) Si⁴⁺
C) Mg²⁺
D) Na⁺
Answer: A
Explanation: The smaller the ion's charge and larger the nuclear charge, the smaller the radius. Al³⁺ has the smallest radius.
Q.63 Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is correct?
A) N > C
B) P > Si
C) Ar > Cl
D) Li > Be
Answer: C
Explanation: As you go from left to right in the periodic table, atomic radius decreases. Therefore, Cl is smaller than Ar.
Q.64 On the basis of the oxidizing power of halogens, which reaction is possible?
A) I₂ + 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2I⁻
B) Br₂ + 2I⁻ → I₂ + 2Br⁻
C) Cl₂ + 2F⁻ → F₂ + 2Cl⁻
D) I₂ + 2Br⁻ → Br₂ + 2I⁻
Answer: A
Explanation: Iodine has a lower oxidizing power than chlorine, so I₂ can oxidize Cl⁻ to Cl₂.
Q.65 Which one of the following gases is used as a mixture for breathing by sea divers?
A) Oxygen and Nitrogen
B) Nitrogen and Helium
C) Helium and Oxygen
D) Helium and Hydrogen
Answer: C
Explanation: Helium and oxygen are used in mixtures for diving because helium has lower solubility in blood and prevents nitrogen narcosis.
Q.66 [Ti(H₂O)₆]³⁺ transmits:
A) Yellow and Red light
B) Yellow and Blue light
C) Red and white light
D) Red and blue light
Answer: D
Explanation: Titanium (III) complexes generally absorb light in the yellow region, and transmit red and blue light.
Q.67 The electronic configuration of Gold [Au₇₉] is:
A) [Xe] 4f¹⁴ , 5d¹⁰ , 6s¹
B) [Xe] 4f¹⁴ , 5d⁹ , 6s²
C) [Xe] 4f¹⁰ , 5d¹⁰ , 6s²
D) [Xe] 4f¹⁴ , 5d¹⁰ , 6s²
Answer: A
Explanation: Gold's electron configuration is [Xe] 4f¹⁴, 5d¹⁰, 6s¹ due to the stability provided by a full d-subshell and a half-filled s-orbital.
Q.68 About 80% of ammonia is used for the production of:
A) Explosives
B) Fertilizers
C) Nylon
D) Polymers
Answer: B
Explanation: The vast majority of ammonia is used in the production of fertilizers, particularly urea.
Q.69 Urea is the most widely used nitrogen fertilizer in Pakistan. Its composition is:
A) NH₂CO
B) N₂H₄CO₂
C) N₂H₅CO₂
D) N₂H₄CO
Answer: A
Explanation: Urea’s formula is NH₂CO, containing two amine groups attached to a carbonyl group.
Q.70 During the manufacture of nitric acid, nitric oxide is oxidized to nitrogen dioxide. This reaction is given as:
According to Le Chatelier’s Principle, the reaction should be carried out at:
A) Low temperature
B) Room temperature
C) High temperature
D) High pressure
Answer: C
Explanation: The reaction is exothermic, so according to Le Chatelier’s Principle, the equilibrium will shift to the right at higher temperatures.
Q.71 What is the percentage of nitrogen in NH₃NO₃?
A) 65%
B) 35%
C) 20%
D) 58%
Answer: B
Explanation: To calculate the percentage of nitrogen in NH₃NO₃, determine the molar mass of the compound and find the contribution of nitrogen.
Q.72 The structural formula of 2,3,4 trimethylpentane is:
A) H₃C CH CH CH₃
B) H₃C C CH₂ CH
C) H₃C CH₂ C CH₃
D) H₃C CH₂ CH C CH₃
Answer: A
Explanation: 2,3,4-Trimethylpentane is a branched alkane with methyl groups attached to the second, third, and fourth positions of the pentane chain.
Q.73 Which one of the following is a powerful electrophile used to attack the electrons of the benzene ring?
A) FeCl₂
B) Cl⁺
C) FeCl₄⁻
D) Cl₂
Answer: B
Explanation: Cl⁺ is a powerful electrophile that readily attacks the Ï€-electrons in the benzene ring during an electrophilic substitution reaction.
Q.74 The order of reactivity of alkenes with hydrogen halide is:
A) HBr > HI > HCl
B) HI > HBr > HF
C) HF > HI > HCl
D) HI > HBr > HCl
Answer: D
Explanation: The reactivity increases as the halogen’s size increases because larger halide ions are more easily displaced in the reaction.
Q.75 The given three hydrocarbons are Benzene, Naphthalene, and Anthracene. These are:
A) Alicyclic hydrocarbons
B) Aromatic hydrocarbons
C) Acyclic hydrocarbons
D) Heterocyclic hydrocarbons
Answer: B
Explanation: Benzene, naphthalene, and anthracene are aromatic hydrocarbons due to their cyclic, conjugated structure and resonance.
Q.76 The IUPAC name of the given compound is:
A) 1-Chloro-2-methylpropane
B) Isobutyl chloride
C) 1-Chloro-2-methylbutane
D) 2-Methyl-3-chloropropane
Answer: A
Explanation: The compound shown corresponds to 1-chloro-2-methylpropane based on the position of the substituents.
Q.77 Which one of the following was used as one of the earliest antiseptic and disinfectant?
A) Phenol
B) Ether
C) Methanol
D) Ethanol
Answer: A
Explanation: Phenol (carbolic acid) was one of the earliest antiseptics and disinfectants used by Joseph Lister.
Q.78 Which one of the following is NOT able to denature ethanol?
A) Methanol
B) Lactic acid
C) Pyridine
D) Acetone
Answer: B
Explanation: Lactic acid does not denature ethanol; however, methanol, acetone, and pyridine can.
Q.79 In the below reaction, the configuration of the product is:
A) 100% same as the configuration of the reactant
B) 50% inverted
C) 50% retained
D) 100% opposite from configuration of reactant
Answer: C
Explanation: Depending on the reaction mechanism, the product configuration can be either retained or inverted.
Q.80 How will you distinguish between methanol and ethanol?
A) By Lucas test
B) By oxidation
C) By silver mirror test
D) By Iodoform test
Answer: B
Explanation: Methanol and ethanol can be distinguished by oxidation; methanol is oxidized to formaldehyde, while ethanol is oxidized to acetaldehyde.
Q.81 To produce absolute alcohol (100%) from rectified spirit (95.6% alcohol), the remaining 4.4% water must be removed by a drying agent such as:
A) Calcium oxide
B) Calcium chloride
C) Calcium carbonate
D) Carbon monoxide
Answer: A
Explanation: Calcium oxide is commonly used as a drying agent to remove water from ethanol.
Q.82 Which one of the following is also called the silver mirror test?
A) Fehling’s solution test
B) Tollen’s reagent
C) Iodoform test
D) Benedict’s solution tests
Answer: B
Explanation: The silver mirror test is performed using Tollen's reagent to detect aldehydes.
Q.83 When acetaldehyde reacts with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNPH), which one of the following products is formed?
A) C₆H₅NHNHNO₂
B) C₆H₅NHNHNO₂ NO₂
C) CH₃CH=O NHNHNO₂
D) CH₃CH₂ NH NHNO₂ NO₂
Answer: B
Explanation: The reaction of acetaldehyde with 2,4-DNPH forms a hydrazone derivative.
Q.84 Both aldehydes and ketones are planar around the carbonyl (C=O) group. Which one of the following bonds is distorted towards the oxygen atoms?
A) π-bond of C and O
B) Sigma bond of C and O
C) Sigma bond of C and H
D) Sigma bond of C and C
Answer: A
Explanation: The π-bond of C and O is more likely to be distorted towards the oxygen atom in the carbonyl group due to the high electronegativity of oxygen.
Q.85 In which one is the α-carbon atom?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: A
Explanation: The α-carbon is the carbon directly attached to the functional group (like the carboxyl group in amino acids).
Q.86 The specific substances (metabolite) that fit on the enzyme surface and are converted to products are called:
A) Co-factor
B) Prosthetic group
C) Isoenzyme
D) Substrate
Answer: D
Explanation: Substrates are the specific molecules that bind to the enzyme's active site and are converted into products.
Q.87 Polyamide is formed due to the condensation of hexane-dioic acid with:
A) Hexane-1,5-diamine
B) Hexane-1,6-diamine
C) Hexane-1,4-diamine
D) Hexane-2,5-diamine
Answer: B
Explanation: Polyamide (such as nylon) is formed by the condensation reaction between a diamine and a dicarboxylic acid.
Q.88 Hemoglobin is a:
A) Genetic protein
B) Building protein
C) Transport protein
D) Structural protein
Answer: C
Explanation: Hemoglobin is a transport protein that carries oxygen in the blood.
Q.89 Which one of the following polymers is polystyrene?
A) CH₂=CH C₆H₅ n
B) CH₂=CH₂ n
C) CF₂=CF₂ n
D) CH₂=CH CH₃ n
Answer: A
Explanation: Polystyrene is made from the polymerization of styrene (C₆H₅CH=CH₂).
Q.90 Out of these, which nitrogen base is NOT present in DNA?
A) Adenine
B) Guanine
C) Uracil
D) Thymine
Answer: C
Explanation: Uracil is found in RNA, not in DNA, where thymine takes its place.
Q.91 Which one of the following is an example of a co-polymer?
A) Polyamide
B) Polystyrene
C) Polyvinyl acetate
D) Polyvinyl chloride
Answer: A
Explanation: Polyamide (like nylon) is a co-polymer made from two different monomers.
Q.92 The biggest source of acid rain is the oxide of:
A) N
B) O
C) S
D) C
Answer: C
Explanation: The main contributor to acid rain is sulfur oxides (SO₂ and SO₃), which combine with water vapor to form sulfuric acid.
Q.93 Burning of which one of the following waste is considered as useful industrial fuel or to produce electricity?
A) Metals
B) Grass
C) Paper
D) Plastic
Answer: B
Explanation: Biomass, such as grass, is often used as an industrial fuel to produce energy.
Q.94 Which of the following is the correct dot and cross diagram of bonding between two chlorine atoms?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct diagram for Cl₂ should show two chlorine atoms sharing one pair of electrons.
Q.95 The equation that represents the standard enthalpy of atomization of hydrogen is:
A) ½ H₂O(l) → H₂(g) + ½ O(g) + 218 kJ/mol
B) ½ H₂(g) → H(g) + 218 kJ/mol
C) ½ H₂O(l) → H₂(g) + ½ O(g) -218 kJ/mol
D) ½ H₂(g) → H(g) -218 kJ/mol
Answer: B
Explanation: The standard enthalpy of atomization represents the energy required to break a molecule into individual atoms, here for hydrogen gas.
Q.96 Standard enthalpy of combustion of graphite at 25 °C is –393.51 kJ/mol and that of diamond is –395.41 kJ/mol. The enthalpy change for graphite is:
A) –1.91
B) +2.1
C) –2.1
D) +1.91
Answer: A
Explanation: The enthalpy change between graphite and diamond is calculated based on their standard enthalpies of combustion.
Q.97 10.0 grams of glucose are dissolved in water to make 100 cm³ of its solution. Its molarity is:
A) 0.55
B) 0.1
C) 10
D) 1
Answer: B
Explanation: Molarity = moles of solute / volume of solution in liters. Convert grams to moles, then solve for molarity.
Q.98 Given solution contains 16.0 g of CH₃OH, 92.0 g of C₂H₅OH, and 36 g of water. Which statement about the mole fraction of the components is true?
A) Mole fraction of CH₃OH is highest among all
B) Mole fraction of C₂H₅OH and H₂O is the same
C) Mole fraction of H₂O is the lowest among all
D) Mole fraction of CH₃OH and C₂H₅OH is the same
Answer: C
Explanation: Calculate the moles of each substance and compare their mole fractions.
Q.99 Study the following facts:
Which reaction is feasible?
A) Cu + Zn²⁺ → Cu²⁺ + Zn
B) Cu²⁺ + Zn → Cu + Zn²⁺
C) Cu²⁺ + Zn²⁺ → Cu + Zn
D) Cu²⁺ + Zn → Cu + Zn²⁺
Answer: B
Explanation: Since Zn is a stronger reducing agent, it can reduce Cu²⁺ to Cu.
Q.100 Keeping in mind the electrode potential, which one of the following reactions is feasible?
A) Zn²⁺ + Cu → Cu²⁺ + Zn
B) Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu
C) Zn + MgSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Mg
D) Cd + MgSO₄ → CdSO₄ + Mg
Answer: B
Explanation: Fe is more reactive than copper, so it can displace copper from copper sulfate.
Q.101 What is the correct relation between pH and pK?
A) pH = pKa + log[Acid/Base]
B) pH = pKa - log[Base/Acid]
C) pH = pKa - log[Acid/Base]
D) pH = pKa + log[Base/Acid]
Answer: D
Explanation: This is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation for buffer solutions.
Q.102 Which one of the following is the correct presentation for Ksp?
A) Ksp = [AgCl] [Ag⁺¹] [Cl⁻¹]
B) Ksp = [Ag⁺¹] [Cl⁻¹]
C) Ksp = [AgCl]
D) Ksp = [Ag⁺¹] [Cl⁻¹]
Answer: B
Explanation: Ksp (solubility product) is expressed as the product of the concentrations of the dissociated ions, raised to their respective stoichiometric coefficients.
Q.103 In spite of all the torture, the police has failed to _________
A) extract
B) confess
C) inform
D) question
Answer: A
Explanation: "Extract" is the correct word to use when referring to obtaining information under difficult circumstances.
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