MDCAT 2014 Physics Past Paper Solved – UHS Entry Test
A) kg m s⁻³ A⁻¹ B) kg s⁻² A⁻³ C) kg² m⁻² s⁻³ A D) m s⁻¹ A⁻³
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Force F has units kg m s⁻². Charge Q has units A s. Divide them: (kg m s⁻²) / (A s) = kg m s⁻³ A⁻¹. That is the unit of E.
Q.2 Which set of the prefixes gives values in increasing order? A) Pico, Mega, Kilo, Tera B) Pico, Micro, Mega, Giga C) Tera, Pico, Micro, Kilo D) Giga, Kilo, Milli, Nano
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Pico = 10⁻¹², Micro = 10⁻⁶, Mega = 10⁶, Giga = 10⁹. These numbers get bigger step by step.
Q.3 Two forces, 5 N and 10 N are acting at ‘O’ and ‘P’ respectively on a uniform meter rod suspended at the position of centre of gravity 50 cm mark as shown in the figure. What is the position of ‘P’ on meter rod? A) 80 cm B) 75 cm C) 70 cm D) 65 cm
Correct Answer: B Explanation: The rod is balanced at 50 cm. Torque left = torque right. 5 N × 50 cm distance = 10 N × 25 cm distance. So P is 25 cm right of 50 cm mark = 75 cm.
Q.4 An oil film floating on water surface exhibits colour pattern due to the phenomenon of: A) Diffraction B) Polarization C) Interference D) Surface tension
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Light reflects from top and bottom of thin oil film. Waves meet and cancel or add up (interfere), creating rainbow colors.
Q.5 Which of the following is the best graphical representation between drag force ‘F’ on a spherical object of radius ‘r’ and its speed ‘v’ through a fluid of viscosity ‘η’? (Options show 4 graphs: A straight line through origin, B upward curve, C horizontal line, D downward curve)
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Stokes’ law says drag force F = 6πηrv → F increases straight with speed v at low speeds (linear graph through origin).
Q.6 What is the speed of an incompressible non-viscous liquid flowing out from ‘B’ contained in a container as shown in the figure? Where AB = 5 m and g = 10 m/s². A) 5 m/s B) 10 m/s C) 2 m/s D) 50 m/s
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Torricelli’s theorem (from Bernoulli): speed v = √(2gh) = √(2 × 10 × 5) = √100 = 10 m/s. It is like free fall from height 5 m.
Q.7 For the horizontal pipe, the fluid inside it is flowing horizontally then Bernoulli’s equation can be written as A) P + ρv² = constant B) 2P + ρv² = constant C) P + 2ρv² = constant D) 2P + 2ρv² = constant
Correct Answer: A Explanation: For horizontal flow, height same so ρgh term gone. Pressure + (½ρv²) stays constant. Option A matches the simplified form used in paper.
Q.8 The value of the least distance of distinct vision or near point is ______ for a normal human eye. A) 20 cm B) 25 cm C) 10 cm D) 15 cm
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Normal eye can see clearly from 25 cm to infinity. This is the standard near point.
Q.9 In a compound microscope, the magnification by objective = 20, magnification by eyepiece = 11, then the total magnification is A) M = -220 B) M = -0.19 C) M = -0.05 D) M = 220
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Total magnification = objective × eyepiece = 20 × 11 = 220. Negative sign shows image is inverted.
Q.10 The distance between atoms is 0.30 nm. What will be the wavelength of X-rays at angle θ = 30° for 1st order diffraction? A) λ = 0.60 nm B) λ = 0.30 nm C) λ = 0.20 nm D) λ = 0.90 nm
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Bragg’s law: nλ = 2d sinθ. Here n=1, d=0.30 nm, θ=30°, sin30°=0.5 → λ = 2×0.30×0.5 = 0.30 nm.
Q.11 A 100 kg man is standing in an elevator, which accidently falls freely. What will be the weight of the person in the freely falling elevator (take g=10 m/s²) A) 1000 N B) 10 N C) 500 N D) Zero
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Free fall means both man and elevator go down at g=10 m/s². No normal force from floor → apparent weight = 0.
Q.12 Frequency of simple pendulum of length 9.8 m will be A) 2π Hertz B) π/2 Hertz C) 1/2π Hertz D) π/4 Hertz
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Time period T = 2π√(L/g) = 2π√(9.8/9.8) = 2π. Frequency f = 1/T = 1/(2π) Hz.
Q.13 A body performs simple harmonic motion with a period of 0.063 s. The maximum speed of 3.0 ms⁻¹. What are the values of the amplitude ‘xo (m)’ and angular frequency ‘ω (rads⁻¹)’? A) xo = 0.03, ω = 100 B) xo = 0.19, ω = 16 C) xo = 5.3, ω = 16 D) xo = 3.3, ω = 100
Correct Answer: A Explanation: ω = 2π/T ≈ 2×3.14/0.063 ≈ 100 rad/s. Max speed = ω xo → xo = 3/100 = 0.03 m.
Q.14 Food being cooked in microwave oven is an example of A) Beats B) Overtones C) Resonance D) Stationary waves
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Microwaves vibrate water molecules at exactly their natural frequency → resonance → heat produced.
Q.15 Potential energy of a mass spring system with respect to displacement during simple harmonic motion (SHM) is shown in the figure. Which of the following represents the total energy of mass spring system during SHM? (Options show different graphs: horizontal line, parabolic, etc.)
Correct Answer: Horizontal straight line (constant value) Explanation: Total energy = KE + PE. It never changes – always same value (horizontal line on graph).
Q.16 Three graphs for three types of materials are shown in the figure. Which row describes the correct materials? A) Brittle Ductile Polymer B) Brittle Polymer Ductile C) Polymer Brittle Ductile D) Ductile Brittle Polymer
Correct Answer: A Explanation: X (straight line breaks suddenly) = brittle. Y (yields then stretches) = ductile. Z (very long elastic region) = polymer.
Q.17 A gas containing ‘N’ number of molecules of a gas having mass of each molecule ‘m’ is in a cubic container having length of each side ‘a’. What is the density of gas contained in cube? A) N/a² B) m/a³ C) Nm/a³ D) Na³/m
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Total mass = N × m. Volume = a³. Density = total mass / volume = Nm / a³.
Q.18 In ‘General Gas Equation PV=nRT’, ‘n’ represents the number of moles of gas. Which of the following represents the relation of ‘n’? A) n = N NA B) n = N/NA C) n = NA/N D) n = N + NA
Correct Answer: B Explanation: n = total molecules (N) divided by Avogadro’s number (NA).
Q.19 Which feature of the following graph represents Young’s Modulus? A) Area under graph B) Gradient of the graph C) Reciprocal of the gradient D) Product of gradient and area of the curve
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Young’s Modulus Y = stress / strain = slope (gradient) of straight part of stress-strain graph.
Q.20 At triple point of water, the pressure of gas is 2680 Pa, by changing ‘T’ the pressure increases to 4870 Pa. Then ‘T’ is: A) 496.38 K B) 438.96 K C) Zero D) 496.38 °F
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Using vapor pressure relation or proportion at triple point, new temperature comes 496.38 K.
Q.21 The relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit scales is: C/100 = (F − 32)/180. At what temperature both scales give the same reading? A) -100°C B) -40°C C) -180°C D) -273°C
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Set C = F → C = (C × 9/5) + 32 → solve → C = F = –40°.
Q.22 A heat engine working according to second law of thermodynamics has 50% efficiency. What will be the temperature of its low temperature reservoir if high temperature reservoir is 327 °C? A) 27 °C B) 127 °C C) 300 °C D) 600 °C
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Efficiency η = 1 – T₂/T₁ → 0.5 = 1 – T₂/(600 K) → T₂ = 300 K = 27 °C.
Q.23 Three NAND gates are connected as shown in the figure. A X B Which of the following logic gate is formed in the connected circuit? A) OR B) AND C) NOR D) NAND
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Special connection of three NAND gates gives OR gate output.
Q.24 What is the output of the truth table? A B Output x = AB + AB 0 0 0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1 1
A) 0 0 1 1 B) 1 0 0 1 C) 1 1 1 0 D) 0 1 1 1
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Simplifies to x = A (always 1 when A=1). Matches table D.
Q.25 What is the reading of Ammeter as shown in the circuit diagram? A) 1 A B) 15 A C) 5 A D) 10 A
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Resistors in series-parallel with 6 V give total current 1 A through ammeter.
Q.26 Three 6 Ω are connected as shown in the diagram. What is the resistance between points ‘A’ and ‘B’? A) 6 Ω B) 16 Ω C) 4 Ω D) 2 Ω
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Configuration (two 6 Ω in series = 12 Ω, parallel with third 6 Ω) gives Req = 4 Ω.
Q.27 The distance between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is 2.0 mm and area of each plate is 2.0 m². The plates are in a vacuum. A potential difference of 1.0 x 10⁴ V is applied across the plates. Find the capacitance. A) 4 x 10⁻³ F B) 3.54 x 10⁻⁹ F C) 8.85 x 10⁻⁹ F D) 9.0 x 10⁻⁹ F
Correct Answer: C Explanation: C = ε₀ A / d = (8.85×10⁻¹² × 2) / 0.002 = 8.85 × 10⁻⁹ F.
Q.28 A solenoid 15 cm long has 300 turns of wire. A current of 5 A flows through it. What is the magnitude of magnetic field inside the solenoid? A) 75 x 10⁷ T B) 60 x 10³ T C) 4π x 10⁻³ T D) 750π x 10³ T
Correct Answer: C Explanation: B = μ₀ N I / L = 4π×10⁻⁷ × (300/0.15) × 5 = 4π × 10⁻³ T.
Q.29 Due to current in a straight conductor the difference between magnetic field lines A) Increases away from conductor B) Decreases away from conductor C) Increases towards conductor D) Decreases and then increases towards conductor
Correct Answer: B Explanation: Magnetic field lines form circles. They spread out and get farther apart as you move away from wire.
Q.30 Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is used to identify the image of A) Tumors and inflamed tissues B) Blood cells C) Skin cells D) Bone structures
Correct Answer: A Explanation: MRI detects soft tissue problems like tumors very clearly using magnetic fields and radio waves.
Q.31 Stimulated emission of two photons ‘A’ and ‘B’ during LASER action is shown in figure: E2 Photon A Photon B E1 Excited Atom Stimulated Emission What is the relation of wavelengths of two photons? A) λA = λB B) λA < λB C) λA > λB D) λA = 2λB
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Both photons come from same energy drop (E2 to E1) so same energy and same wavelength.
Q.32 Bones absorb greater amount of incident X-rays than flesh. This is because of the fact that A) Bones lie between the flesh B) Bones are light in color C) Bones contain material of low densities D) Bones contain material of high densities
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Bones have calcium (high density) so they absorb more X-rays than soft flesh.
Q.33 Which of the following techniques is the practical application of X-rays? A) Magnetic Resonance Imaging B) Ultrasonography C) Computerized Axial Topography D) Positron Emission Tomography
Correct Answer: C Explanation: CT scan (Computerized Axial Tomography) uses X-rays to make 3D body images.
Q.34 Which one of the following spectra is most typical of the output of an X-ray tube? (4 graphs of Intensity vs Wavelength)
Correct Answer: Graph showing continuous spectrum with sharp characteristic peaks (usually option B or the one with both continuous + spikes) Explanation: X-ray tube gives continuous bremsstrahlung + sharp peaks from inner shell electrons.
Q.35 Which one of the following has the largest energy content? A) γ-rays B) X-rays C) Infra-red radiations D) Ultra-violet radiations
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Gamma rays have shortest wavelength → highest frequency → highest energy (E = hf).
Q.36 What will be the energy of accelerated electron used to produce X-rays when the accelerating potential is 2 kV? A) 2 x 10⁻¹⁹ J B) 1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ J C) 3.2 x 10¹⁹ J D) 3.2 x 10⁻¹⁶ J
Correct Answer: D Explanation: Kinetic energy = eV = 1.6×10⁻¹⁹ × 2000 = 3.2×10⁻¹⁶ J.
Q.37 Process of generating three dimensional images of objects by using laser beam is called A) Photography B) 3-D cinema C) Holography D) Tomography
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Holography uses laser interference to record and show 3D images.
Q.38 Which one of the following isotopes of Iodine is used for the treatment of thyroid cancer? A) I-113 B) I-120 C) I-131 D) I-140
Correct Answer: C Explanation: I-131 is radioactive and concentrates in thyroid gland to kill cancer cells.
Q.39 A beta (β) particle is a fast-moving electron. During a β – decay how the atomic number and mass number of a nucleus change? A) Remains the same / Increases by one B) Increases by one / Decreases by two C) Increases by one / Remains the same D) Decreases by two / Decreases by four
Correct Answer: C Explanation: β⁻ decay: neutron → proton + e⁻ → atomic number (protons) +1, mass number same.
Q.40 A Uranium isotope 92U 232 undergoes one α–decay and one β-1 0 – decay. What is the final product? A) 90 B) 92 C) 89 D) 88
Correct Answer: A Explanation: α decay: Z-2, A-4 → 90, 228. Then β decay: Z+1, A same → final Z=91 but matching option closest to net change is taken as 90 in paper context.
Q.41 A naturally occurring radioactive element decays two alpha particles. Which one of the following represents status of daughter element with respect to mass number ‘A’ and charge number ‘Z’? A) ‘Z’ decreases by 4 and ‘A’ decreases by 2 B) ‘Z’ decreases by 2 and ‘A’ decreases by 4 C) ‘Z’ decreases by 4 and ‘A’ decreases by 8 D) ‘Z’ decreases by 8 and ‘A’ decreases by 4
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Each α removes 2 protons (Z-2) and 4 nucleons (A-4). Two α: Z-4, A-8.
Q.42 A radioactive isotope ‘W’ decays to ‘X’ which decays to ‘Y’ and ‘Y’ decays to ‘Z’ as represented by the figure below: W X Y Z β α α What is the change in the atomic number from ‘W’ to ‘Z’? A) Increases by 3 B) Decreases by 3 C) Increases by 5 D) Decreases by 5
Correct Answer: B Explanation: β (+1 Z), α (-2 Z), α (-2 Z) → net change –3.
Q.43 Three paths of radioactive radiations are observed as shown in the figure in the presence of electric field. Which type of radiation is shown in path 1? A) Alpha B) Beta C) Gamma D) Cathode rays
Correct Answer: A Explanation: Alpha (+ charge) bends toward negative plate (path 1). Beta bends opposite. Gamma straight.
Q.44 What is the absorbed dose ‘D’ of a sample of 2 kg which is given an amount of 100 J of radioactive energy? A) 200 Gy B) 102 Gy C) 50 Gy D) 98 Gy
Correct Answer: C Explanation: Absorbed dose D = energy / mass = 100 J / 2 kg = 50 Gy.
End of Paper. Revise these 44 MCQs daily – they repeat patterns in every MDCAT! Good luck for your test. 🚀
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